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NEW QUESTION: 1
When a user employs a client-side digital certificate to authenticate to a web server through Secure Socket Layer (SSI.), confidentiality is MOST vulnerable to which of the following?
A. Repudiation
B. Man-in-the-middle attack
C. IP spoofing
D. Trojan
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A Trojan is a program that gives the attacker full control over the infected computer, thus allowing the attacker to hijack, copy or alter information after authentication by the user. IP spoofing will not work because IP is not used as an authentication mechanism. Man-in-the-middle attacks are not possible if using SSL with client-side certificates. Repudiation is unlikely because client-side certificates authenticate the user.

NEW QUESTION: 2
You are creating a new product master.
Which three steps should you complete on the product master before using the product on sales orders and purchase orders? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Create product dimension values.
B. Create product variants.
C. Release the products and variants to one or more legal entities.
D. Create product dimension groups.
E. Create product attributes in one or more legal entities.
Answer: A,C,D

NEW QUESTION: 3
What theme provides all management levels within the project management team with mechanisms for monitoring and control?
A. Quality
B. Organization
C. Progress
D. Change
Answer: C

NEW QUESTION: 4
Kylie Autumn, CFA, is a consultant with Tri-Vision Group. Robert Lullum, Senior Vice President ai Langsford Investments, has asked for assistance with the evaluation of mortgage-backed and collateralized mortgage obligation (CMO) derivative securities for potential inclusion in several client portfolios. Langsford Investments mainly deals with equity investments and REITs, but the company recently purchased a small firm that invests mainly in fixed-income securities.
Lullum has done some research on the appropriate spread measures and option valuation models for fixed-income securities and wants to clarify some points. He wants to know if the following statements are correct:
Statement 1: The proper spread measure for option-free corporate bonds is the nominal spread.
Statement 2: Callable corporate bonds and mortgage-backed securities should be measured using the option-added spread.
Statement 3: The Z-spread is appropriate for credit card ABS and auto loan ABS.
While Lullum meets with Autumn, Janet Van Ark, CFA charterholder and equity-income portfolio manager for Langsford, is attempting to purchase bonds that may also provide her with equity exposure in the future. She has decided to analyze an 8% annual coupon bond with exactly 20 years to maturity. The bonds are convertible into 10 common shares for each $ 1,000 of par (face) value. The bond's market price is $920, and the common stock has a market price of $40. Van Ark estimates that the stock will increase in value to $70 within the next two years. The stock's annual dividend is $0.40 per share, and the market yield on comparable non-convertible bonds'is 9.5%.
Carl Leighton, a Langsford analyst and Level 2 CFA candidate, works with mortgage-backed and other asset-based securities. He provides Lullum with a list of credit enhancements for asset-backed securities, which includes letters of credit, excess servicing spread funds, overcollateralization, and bond insurance.
Lullum then asks him for a status report of the firm's exposure to paythrough securities. He also asks Leighton to calculate the single-monthly mortality rate (SMM) and estimate the prepayment for the month for a seasoned mortgage pool with a $500,000 principal balance remaining. The scheduled monthly principal payment is $ 150 and the conditional prepayment rate (CPR) is 7%.
Which of the following statements about interest-only (10) and principal-only (PO) strips is least accurate?
A. IO cash flows start out large and diminish over time. As a result, 10 investors are most concerned with extension risk.
B. The 10 price is positively related to interest rates, and at low current rates, POs exhibit some negative convexity.
C. In general, the volatility of the combined 10 and PO strips equals the price volatility of the source passthrough.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
IO investors want prepayments to be slow and thus are more concerned with contraction risk.
Interest-only strips: An interest-only (IO) strip receives all interest payments from the underlying mortgage pool. If market interest rates increase, prepayments will fall. This results in larger than expected principal balances and, thus, larger than expected interest payments. Hence. IO strips have higher realized returns when interest rates increase. If interest rates fall, the pool tends to prepay and interest payments fall, resulting in lower returns to the IO strip.
Principal-only strips: A principal-only (PO) strip receives only the principal payments (both scheduled and prepayments) from the underlying pool of mortgages. If interest rates fall, prepayments increase. Since the PO strips arc discount securities, larger than expected prepayments result in the early return of principal and thus a higher return on the security. Increasing interest rates result in lower than expected prepayments (i.e., extension risk) and lower actual returns.
Volatility: Both IOs and POs have greater price volatility than the passthrough from which they were derived. This occurs because the IO and PO returns are negatively correlated (they respond in opposite directions to changes in interest rates), but the volatility of the combined IO and PO strips equals the price volatility of the source passthrough.
(Study Session 15, LOS 55-i)

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